CS410, Summer 1998
Quiz #8
July 21

Consult no sources.				Name:

1. Why can bounding total time by "worst-case time per
operation"*"number of operations" produce weak results?

2. When is using a result of amortized analysis inappropriate?

3. In an amortized analysis, why do we purposely "overcharge" some
operations?

4. What is the run-time cost associated with an amortized analysis?

ANSWERS
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1. Because the worst case per operation might occur (provably) rarely.

2. When we must have guarantees on the time that each individual
operation takes.

3. To build up "savings" to pay for more expensive operations later.

4. None.  It is an analysis technique only.